1. In which case it was held by the supreme court that preamble is the basic feature of the constitution Answer : in re Keshwananda Bharti |
2. In which cases it was held by the supreme court that an amendment of the constitution under article 368 was law within the meaning of article 13 Answer : in re In GolakNath Case |
3. The number of articles in Indian constitution is Answer : 395 |
4. The list of states and union territories is mentioned in which schedule of the constitution Answer : First |
5. The establishment and constitution of supreme Court has been provided in Answer : Article 124 |
6. Which provision of constitution says that civil and judicial authorities to act in aid to Supreme court? Answer Article 144 |
7. Which provision of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record Answer Article 215 |
8. Writ jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts art 226 Answer : Both are equal |
9. Gram Sabha has been created under which article of constitution Answer : Article 243 A |
10. Right to property under art 300A is a Answer : Constitutional right |
11. Power of parliament to restrict trade and commerce has been described in Answer Article 302 |
12. Public service commissions for the union and states are created Answer : Article 315 |
13. The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank of civil servants emanates from Answer : article 311 of constitution |
14. Power of governor to grant pardon is given in Answer Art 161 |
15. Preventive detention according to Art 22 can be enforced Answer : |
16. Proclamation of emergency is valid up to Answer : It has to be for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed |
17. Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under Answer Article 20 |
18. In the Indian Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with Answer : The people |
19. The prime minister is Answer : Head of the government |
20 The finance commission is appointed by the Answer : President |
21. Which article provides fundamental right of right to education Answer : Article 21A |
22. In Answer : Advocate General |
23. If a directive principles of State policy is infringed Answer: There is no remedy by judicial proceedings |
24. India Sawhney V. Union India is a case dealing with: Answer: Reservation of OBCs |
25. Article 17 of the Constitution: Answer: Abolishes untouchability |
26. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers? Answers: Preamble |
27. The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the Central Government and State Government is provided in which article? Answers: Art. 300 |
28. The Attorney General of Answers: President |
29. The eight schedule of the Constitution contains: Answers: List of languages recognized by the Constitution |
30. National Emergency can be declared by the President: Answers: On the recommendation of the Parliament |
31. The provisions of Art. 311 does not apply to Answers: All of these |
32. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not? Answers: Speaker of the Lok Sabha |
33. Who is the Ex= officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? Answers: The Vice-President |
34. An order of court to produce a man before it is called: Answers: Habeas Corpus |
35. Which article separates judiciary from executive? Answers: Article 50 |
36. All Answers: Article 312 |
37. Which of the following right is not provided under the Consumer Protection Act? Answers: Right to punish |
38. The pecuniary jurisdiction of Answers: None of the above |
39. The limitation for filing appeal under the Consumer Protection Act is: Answers: 30 days from the order |
40. Medical Services were brought under the Consumer Protection Act by the Supreme Court in the famous case of: Answers: Indian medical association v V.P shata |
41. Consumer mentioned u/s 2 of the Act includes Answers: Both of them |
42. The limitation for filing a Consumer Complaint is Answers: Two year |
43. The delay in filing Consumer Complaint can be condoned under: Answers: Section 24 A(2) of the Act |
44. Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as: Answers: District Forum |
45. The responsibility of the consumer under the Act includes: Answers: All of the above |
46. Appeal from the Orders of Consumer National Commission lies to: Answers: Supreme Court |
47. Under which provision District Forum can impose punitive damages? Answers: Section 14(d) of the Act |
48. A person against whom an order has been passed by the District Forum may go into appeal to the Answers: Lesser of (A) & (B) |
49. The president of Answers: Chief Justice of the High Court |
50. The pecuniary jurisdiction of Consumer National Commission is Answers: Above 1 Crore |
51. The provision of transfer of complaints from one District Forum to another within the state vest with the State commission under Answer : Section 17 A of the Act |
52. The word “information’ under the RTI Act includes: Answer : Both of them |
53. The RTI Act came into effect in the year: Answer : 2005 |
54. The provision of the RTI Act giving citizen right to information is Answer : Section 3 |
55. The language of an application under RTI Answer : All of the above |
56. The period for filing appeal under the RTI Act may be: Answer : 30 days |
57. An application making request for information Answer : Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information |
58. The general time limit for providing information sought under RTI Act is Answer : 30 days |
59. The type of information exempted under the RTI act are mentioned in: Answer : Section 8 |
60. The term of office for the Chief indormatio0n Commissioner and information Commissioner is : Answer : Five year and superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier |
61. Bar of jurisdiction of court in respect of any order made under the RTI Act is contained in: Answer : Section 23 |
62. The umbrella organization under the RTI Act to Co- ordinate and monitor the implementation of the provision of the Act is Answer : National Advisory council* |
63. The object of the RTI Act is: Answer : All the above 64. RTI Act applies to : Answer : Only A & B |
65. The period for filing second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is Answer : 90 days |
66. The limit of penalty to be imposed by the State information Commission or the Central Information Commission under section 20 of the Act on the Principal information Officer is rupees : Answer : Min- 250/- and Max -25000/- |
67. Number of chapters in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are Answer : 23 |
68. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code: Answer : Five |
69. Chapter V of Indian Penal code deals with: Answer : Abetment |
70. Abettor is a person Answer : Who instigates the commission of offence* |
71. Preventing service of summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof, shall be punished with: Answer : Any of A and B* |
72. Under section 99, the right of private defence is Answer : |
73. A public servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding, shall be punished with: Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1 month an fine Rs 500 |
74. Obstructing public servant in discharge functions, shall be punished with: Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months, or fine of Rs 500/- or both |
75. Number of chapter in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 Answer : 11 |
76. Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply on affidavits, and arbitration Answer : Correct statement |
77. Relevancy is Answer : Question of law and can be raised at any time |
78. RTI Act 2005 covers all the states in Answer : Jammu & Kashmir |
79. Which one of the following is not a member of committee for appointment of CIC Answer : Speaker of Lok Sabha |
80. Which of the following is not a writ provided in the constitution of Answer : Injunction |
81. Code of Civil Procedure came into force in the year Answer : 1909 |
82. “ Measne Profits” under CPC means: Answer : Benefits enjoyed by the person in wrongful possession of the property |
83. “ Foreign Judgment” under CPC means Answer : The judgment of foreign court |
84. Decree of a Answer : Any order of extension of time for filing Court Fees |
85. “Judgment Debtor:” means; Answer : A person against whom decree has been passed |
86. Pleader means: Answer : Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in Court |
87. The word “Judge” under CPC means Answer : Presiding Officer of a Civil Court |
88. The word “ Order” under section 2 of CPC means Answer : Formal expression of any decision of a Civil court |
89. “ Share in a corporation” shall be deemed to include Answer : Bond, stock, debenture, debenture stock |
90. Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, CPC does not apply Answer : Nagaland |
91. A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against Answer : Accused offender* |
92. Attachment of the property of the person absconding Answer : Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation u/s 82 of CrPC |
93. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving Answer : Not less than 30 day time to the person concerned |
94. Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is Answer : Within six month of attachment |
95. Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is Answer : One year from the date of disallowing the claim |
96. If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached: Answer : Shall be released from attachment |
97. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from: Answer : Section 85 of Cr.PC |
98. If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached: Answer : Both A and B |
99. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds, on appearance. Answer : Within two year of attachment. |
100. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that: Answer : Both A and B |
101. The power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC Answer : All the above |
102. A proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued Answer : To secure the attendance of the person concerned before the court |
103. Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed Answer : |
104. Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made Answer : Through the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated. |
105. A fact forming of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act: Answer : Through not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place |
106. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant Answer : Under Section 6 of Evidence Act |
107. Motive behind an Act is relevant Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
108. Preparation for an Act is relevant: Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
109 Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant: Answer : Both A&B |
110. Under section 8 of Evidence Act: Answer : All the above are relevant |
111. When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant: Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
112. Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant Answer : Under Section 7 of Evidence Act |
113. A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law Answer : Under Section 5 of Evidence Act |
114. The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively. Each delivery is a relevant fact: Answer : Under Section 7 of Evidence Act |
115. The question is, whether A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant Facts: Answer : Under Section 7 of Evidence Act |
116. A is accused of murder of B by beating him. Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact: Answer : Under Section 6 of Evidence Act |
117. A is tired for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact: Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
118. The question is is whether A committed a crime. The fact that A absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant: Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
119. The question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant: Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
120. A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of bond. The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, B required money for particular purpose, is relevant. Answer : Under Section 8 of Evidence Act |
121. Wrongful gain means Answer : Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled |
122. Wrongful loss means Answer : Loss b unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled |
123. Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another: Answer : Under section 24 IPC |
124. Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud: Answer : Under section 25 of IPC 125. Section 34 of IPC Answer : |
126. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes: Answer : Death of a human being |
127. Illegal signifies Answer : All the above |
128. Nothing is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention- as defined: Answer : Under section 52 IPC |
129. Personating a public servant is an offence Answer : Under Section 170 IPC |
130. The term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means Answer : Any harm illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation |
131. The word voluntarily has been defined Answer : In section 39 of IPC |
132. For the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least Answer : Two persons |
133. Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable: Answer : Under section 174 of IPC |
134. Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable Answer : Under section 177 of IPC |
135. Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable Answer : Under section 186 of IPC |
136. Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable: Answer : Under section 188 of IPC |
137. Threat of injury to public servant is punishable Answer : Under section 189 of IPC |
138. Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable Answer : Under section 491 of IPC |
139. Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided: Answer : In section 55 of IPC |
140. Under section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed Answer : Three months. |
141. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine Answer : Has to be simple |
142. In IPC the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote. Answer : Either |
143 In IPC the word Answer : State of |
144. The word public servant has been defined in IPC Answer : In section 21 |
145. The word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean Answer : A law applicable to a particular subject |
146. The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited Answer : In section 168 of IPC |
147. The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited: Answer : In section 169 of IPC |
148. Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments: Answer : Five |
149. A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange. As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may become lawful holder of it: Answer : The endorsement is a valuable security |
150. The cncept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided. Answer : In section 34 of IPC (Solved by AB Kantharaja, Mobile 08969822340, http://abkantharaja.blogspot.in ) |
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